Jump to content

Recommended Posts

We should really log this thread.

I'd say no to that. I have a genuine interest in these releases and would like to be able to see when Travis posts updates for them. All the trolling and gullible people believing it is starting to piss me off though...
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest stl_ben.

I'd say no to that. I have a genuine interest in these releases and would like to be able to see when Travis posts updates for them. All the trolling and gullible people believing it is starting to piss me off though...

 

Log not Lock.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest stl_ben.

Oh shit, I guess I can't read. lol

It's ok, if this thread was locked, where would I go to get all my info on who still wants someone to try to get them an extra copy of EOTS? Gotta stay up to date on that stuff.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I have a two copies on the way, but how do I really know that 1+1=2?

The proof starts from the Peano Postulates, which define the natural

numbers N. N is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

P1. 1 is in N.

P2. If x is in N, then its "successor" x' is in N.

P3. There is no x such that x' = 1.

P4. If x isn't 1, then there is a y in N such that y' = x.

P5. If S is a subset of N, 1 is in S, and the implication

(x in S => x' in S) holds, then S = N.

Then you have to define addition recursively:

Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 1, then define a + b = a'

(using P1 and P2). If b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in N

(using P4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

Then you have to define 2:

Def: 2 = 1'

2 is in N by P1, P2, and the definition of 2.

Theorem: 1 + 1 = 2

Proof: Use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

Then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.

Note: There is an alternate formulation of the Peano Postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in P1, P3, P4, and P5. Then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 0, then define a + b = a.

If b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in N, and define

a + b = (a + c)'.

You also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. Then the proof of the

Theorem above is a little different:

Proof: Use the second part of the definition of + first:

1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

Now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

parentheses: 1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest stl_ben.

Just enough to fill a chalice. I want to sit it on my mantle

But the question is. Do you have anticoagulants to keep it liquid, and how will you keep it from evaporating?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest stl_ben.

I have a two copies on the way, but how do I really know that 1+1=2?

The proof starts from the Peano Postulates, which define the natural

numbers N. N is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

P1. 1 is in N.

P2. If x is in N, then its "successor" x' is in N.

P3. There is no x such that x' = 1.

P4. If x isn't 1, then there is a y in N such that y' = x.

P5. If S is a subset of N, 1 is in S, and the implication

(x in S => x' in S) holds, then S = N.

Then you have to define addition recursively:

Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 1, then define a + b = a'

(using P1 and P2). If b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in N

(using P4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

Then you have to define 2:

Def: 2 = 1'

2 is in N by P1, P2, and the definition of 2.

Theorem: 1 + 1 = 2

Proof: Use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

Then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.

Note: There is an alternate formulation of the Peano Postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in P1, P3, P4, and P5. Then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 0, then define a + b = a.

If b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in N, and define

a + b = (a + c)'.

You also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. Then the proof of the

Theorem above is a little different:

Proof: Use the second part of the definition of + first:

1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

Now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

parentheses: 1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.

 

I guess it's too late for me to ask you to prove you have two copies coming. Multiple proofs would be irrational.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I guess it's too late for me to ask you to prove you have two copies coming. Multiple proofs would be irrational.

Well how about an irrational proof...since we now know 1+1=2, how about verifying that the square root of 2 is in fact irrational?

The proof that square root of 2 is irrational:

Let's suppose √2 were a rational number. Then we can write it √2 = a/b where a,b are whole numbers, b not zero.

We additionally assume that this a/b is simplified to the lowest terms, since that can obviously be done with any fraction. Notice that in order for a/b to be in its simplest terms, both a andb must be not be even. One or both must be odd. Otherwise, you could simplify.

From the equality √2 = a/b it follows that 2 = a2/b2, or a2 = 2 * b2. So the square of a is an even number since it is two times something. From this we can know that a itself is also an even number. Why? Because it can't be odd; if a itself was odd, then a * a would be odd too. Odd number times odd number is always odd. Check if you don't believe that!

Okay, if a itself is an even number, then a is 2 times some other whole number, or a = 2k where k is this other number. We don't need to know exactly what k is; it won't matter. Soon is coming the contradiction:

If we substitute a = 2k into the original equation 2 = a2/b2, this is what we get:

2 = (2k)2/b2

2 = 4k2/b2

2*b2 = 4k2

b2 = 2k2.

This means b2 is even, from which follows again that b itself is an even number!!!

WHY is that a contradiction? Because we started the whole process saying that a/b is simplified to the lowest terms, and now it turns out that a and b would both be even. So √2 cannot be rational.

Oh yeah...Blonk 182!

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest stl_ben.

haha, I'd say the odds are greater than or equal to 50%

 

Mine went from fullfilling order to shipped too on the ht website but I also ordered another record with mine to get the $10 off $40.

Wasn't this already posted? I would guess they shipped your other record.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest stl_ben.

I am beyond confused, if I order buddha now will I receive it? Somebody please just tell me what is going on. thanks

Jesus H.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

 Share

×

AdBlock Detected

spacer.png

We noticed that you're using an adBlocker

Yes, I'll whitelist